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[10] In all such instances the question at issue is to know whether the supposed offender is a wrongdoer and a worthless person, or not; for vice and wrongdoing consist in the moral purpose, and such terms as outrage and theft further indicate purpose; for if a man has struck, it does not in all cases follow that he has committed an outrage, but only if he has struck with a certain object, for instance, to bring disrepute upon the other or to please himself. Again, if a man has taken something by stealth, it is by no means certain that he has committed theft, but only if he has taken it to injure another1 or to get something for himself. It is the same in all other cases as in these.

1 Roemer reads, after Dittmeyer, εἰ ἐπὶ βλάβῃ [τούτου ἀφ᾽ οὗ ἔλαβε] καὶ . . . from the old Latin translation

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    • A Dictionary of Greek and Roman Antiquities (1890), HYBRIS
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