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[205d]

Socrates
And is not this the sole reason why it is single in form and indivisible? I can see no other.

Theaetetus
There is no other to be seen.

Socrates
Then the syllable falls into the same class with the letter, if it has no parts and is a single form?

Theaetetus
Yes, unquestionably.

Socrates
If, then, the syllable is a plurality of letters and is a whole of which the letters are parts, the syllables and the letters are equally knowable and expressible, if all the parts were found to be the same as the whole.


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